RV-KJV

What the apostles discover regarding the person of Christ Jesus (Yeshua) reveals the true divine nature of Jesus Christ:

"That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not." John 1:9-10

What John is saying here is that Jesus is the creator of the world so he is God itself. Also, John and the apostles are saying that the God of the old testament is Jesus which comes in the flesh living among us as a man, as one of us, teaching us to do the will of God, lets read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." John 1:18

If this statement is true then who talks to the prophets in the old testament? In the old testament, Jesus descends to earth in the form of the Angel of the Lord (this angel bears his name) the angel of the Lord proclaimed the name of the Lord.

"And the LORD descended in the cloud, and stood with him there, and proclaimed the name of the LORD. And the LORD passed by before him, and proclaimed, The LORD, The LORD God, merciful and gracious, longsuffering, and abundant in goodness and truth," Exodus 34:6

Now check how this angel of the Lord uses the same name of the Lord:

"Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for my name is in him." Exodus 23:20,215

Now let's check this statement of Jesus telling about his unique nature.

"Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us. Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?" John 14:96

And finally the statement of Thomas:

"Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God" John20:27

So we can not say that Jesus is different than the father but he is one with the father the same as he states in the scriptures.

"I and my Father are one." John 10:308

Source: https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/jesus-god/

Hi, I'm a Muslim. I've one question about Jesus.

When you call someone/believe in someone as (your God), you imply something by that (i.e. there’re necessary consequences of that belief theologically).

For example, when you call Jesus (my God), that means rather it has to mean that you believe in your heart that Jesus has created you. That meaning is already in your mind & heart. It must be!

Based on that, I want to ask you when Jesus himself called the Father as (his God), what does that have to mean/imply?

If the Father has created Jesus, then that does make sense. However, Jesus was not created according to Christians, so I'm asking why Jesus addressed the father by this label (my God)? Has the Father Created Jesus? If not, why did Jesus believed in the father as his God.

Thank you.

Abdullah

A former Muslim (now Christian) friend once remarked to me, “Muslim evangelism is a crash course in Christian doctrine.” Your question, Abdullah, so well illustrates that remark. You have opened the door to discussion of some very profound doctrines about God and Christ.

To begin with, you are quite right in inferring that if any human being regards someone as God, he must also regard that person as his Creator, since God is the Creator of all that exists apart from Himself. Since Christians regard Jesus as God, they also explicitly acknowledge him as the Creator (see Gospel of John 1.1-3; Colossians 1.15-17; Hebrews 1.1-3).

So what is implied when Jesus refers to his Heavenly Father as God? The answer to that question takes us into the doctrines of the Trinity and the two natures of Christ.

First, with respect to the doctrine of the Trinity, Christians have distinguished between the ontological Trinity and the economic Trinity. (I’m sorry if this appears complex, but you asked!) The ontological Trinity has to do with God as He exists in Himself wholly apart from His relations to the world. The ontological Trinity comprises three persons, whom we call the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Now the question is: are there relations of derivation among the persons of the ontological Trinity? Traditionally, the Christian church has affirmed that there are. Specifically, it has held that the second person of the Trinity eternally derives from the first person, much as light proceeds from the sun. That is why the first person is called the Father and the second person the Son, since the first person begets the second. Now begetting is not the same as creating. When a cat begets kittens, it brings forth offspring that share its same feline nature. By contrast, when an animal creates something (like a bird’s nest or a beaver’s dam), it produces an artifact having a different nature than its own. So the Son, sharing the same nature as the Father, is rightly said to have been begotten by the Father, not created by Him. So Jesus Christ, as a divine person, regards the first person of the Trinity as his Father, not his Creator.

Not all Christians hold to the view that there are relations of derivation within the ontological Trinity. I myself am sceptical of this view because it has no Scriptural warrant. Rather I tend to think of the denomination of the three self-standing persons of the ontological Trinity as “Father,” “Son,” and “Holy Spirit” as belonging properly to the economic Trinity. That is to say, these names are descriptive of the respective roles the three persons play in the plan of salvation. Jesus Christ, though equal in nature to the first person of the Trinity, submits to him and becomes incarnate for the sake of our salvation and so is called the Son in relation to the Father. Christ is the Son of the Father, not in his divine nature, as on the traditional view, but in his human nature in virtue of his virginal conception.

So we have two alternative ways of accounting for Jesus’ relation to God as his Father: either (i) because he is eternally begotten by the Father in his divine nature or (ii) because he was miraculously begotten through Mary’s virginal conception of Jesus in his human nature.

That would explain why Jesus thought of God as his Father. But that’s not the whole story. How can Jesus regard the Father as his God? That gets into the doctrine of the two natures of Christ. On the Christian view, Jesus had two natures, human and divine. Having two natures, he was truly human as well as truly divine. When Jesus during his earthly incarnation worships and prays to his Father as God, he does so as a human being. As a divine person, Jesus could not have been created by God, but his individual human nature, that body-soul composite that walked the hills of Galilee and was crucified in Jerusalem, was created by God. So it was entirely appropriate that Christ in his human nature worshipped and served his Heavenly Father as his God, as did other faithful Jews.

I hope this helps to clear up your question. Jesus was not created (even if he was begotten) in his divine nature. But his human nature was created by God. So in his humanity Jesus regarded his Heavenly Father as God.

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The Old Testament